Q. 184.5( 4 Votes )

Mark the correct alternative in the following:

If f(x) = cos (loge x), then is equal to

A. cos (x – y)

B. log (cos (x – y))

C. 1

D. cos (x + y)

Answer :


Now,





Using:


=cos(loge x) cos(loge x y)-{cos(loge x x ) cos(loge x y)}


=0

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