Q. 84.6( 5 Votes )

If, show that (fof)(x) = x for all. What is the inverse of f?

Answer :

We have


We know (fof)(x) = f(f(x))








As (fof)(x) = x = Ix (the identity function), f(x) = f-1(x).


Thus,


Rate this question :

How useful is this solution?
We strive to provide quality solutions. Please rate us to serve you better.
Related Videos
Functions - 0152 mins
Inverse Trigonometric Functions - 0161 mins
Range of Functions58 mins
Functions - 0648 mins
Functions - 1156 mins
Functions - 0947 mins
Battle of Graphs | various functions & their Graphs48 mins
Functions - 0253 mins
Functions - 0840 mins
Functions - 0361 mins
Try our Mini CourseMaster Important Topics in 7 DaysLearn from IITians, NITians, Doctors & Academic Experts
Dedicated counsellor for each student
24X7 Doubt Resolution
Daily Report Card
Detailed Performance Evaluation
view all courses